1 votes 1 votes Given that $F(s)$ is the one-sided Laplace transform of $f(t),$ the Laplace transform of $\displaystyle{}\int_{0}^{t} f(\tau) d \tau$ is $s F(s)-f(0)$ $\dfrac{1}{s} F(s)$ $\displaystyle{}\int_{0}^{s} F(\tau) d \tau$ $\dfrac{1}{s}[F(s)-f(0)]$ Others gate2009-ec + – admin asked Sep 15, 2022 • edited Jan 30, 2023 by Lakshman Bhaiya admin 46.4k points 121 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.