1 votes 1 votes If the Laplace transform of a signal $y(t)$ is $Y(s)=\dfrac{1}{s(s-1)},$ then its final value is $-1$ $0$ $1$ Unbounded Others gate2007-ec + – admin asked Sep 19, 2022 • edited Feb 24, 2023 by Lakshman Bhaiya admin 46.4k points 101 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.