0 votes 0 votes The Laplace Transform of $e \alpha t \cos (\alpha \; t)$ is equal to $\frac{(s-\alpha)}{(s-\alpha)^2+\alpha^2}$ $\frac{(s+\alpha)}{(s-\alpha)^2+\alpha^2}$ $\frac{1}{(s-\alpha)^2}$ None of the above Others gate1997-ec + – admin asked Oct 2, 2022 • edited Dec 2, 2023 by makhdoom ghaya admin 46.4k points 83 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.