1 votes 1 votes What is the value of $\lambda$ such that $\operatorname{Prob}\{X>\operatorname{mean}\{X\}\}=1 / e$, where $\text{PDF}$ of $X$ is $p_{X}(x)=\lambda e^{-\lambda x}, x \geq 0, \lambda>0?$ $1$ $1 / e$ $1 / \sqrt{e}$ $1 / e^{2}$ All of the above Probability and Statistics tifr2011 probability-and-statistics probability poisson-distribution + – admin asked Dec 5, 2022 • edited Jan 18, 2023 by Lakshman Bhaiya admin 46.4k points 89 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.