0 votes 0 votes In the figure, assume the OP-AMPs to be ideal. The output $v_{0}$ of the circuit is $10 \cos (100 t)$ $10 \int_{0}^{1} \cos (100 \tau) d \tau$ $10^{-4} \int_{0}^{t} \cos (100 \tau) d \tau$ $10^{-4} \frac{d}{d t} \cos (100 t)$ Others gate2001-ec + – admin asked Sep 29, 2022 • edited Nov 30, 2023 by makhdoom ghaya admin 46.4k points 58 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.