1 votes 1 votes Let $a_{1} \geq a_{2} \geq \cdots \geq a_{k} \geq 0$. Then the limit \[ \lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{k} a_{i}^{n}\right)^{1 / n} \] is $0$ $\infty$ $a_{k}$ $a_{1}$ $\left(\sum_{i=1}^{k} a_{k}\right) / k$ Calculus tifr2010 calculus limits + – admin asked Nov 30, 2022 • recategorized Jan 18, 2023 by Lakshman Bhaiya admin 46.4k points 88 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.