0 votes 0 votes The Laplace transform of $i(t)$ is given by $$ I(s)=\frac{2}{s(1+s)} $$ As $t \rightarrow \infty$, the value of $i(t)$ lends to $0$ $1$ $2$ $\infty$ Others gate2003-ec + – admin asked Sep 26, 2022 • edited Nov 30, 2023 by makhdoom ghaya admin 46.4k points 88 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.