Let $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} f(n)=\infty$ and $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} g(n)=\infty$. Then which of the following is necessarily $\text{TRUE.}$
- $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n)-g(n)|=\infty$
- $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n)-g(n)|=0$
- $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n) / g(n)|=\infty$
- $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n) / g(n)|=1$
- None of the above