1 1 vote Let $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} f(n)=\infty$ and $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} g(n)=\infty$. Then which of the following is necessarily $\text{TRUE.}$ $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n)-g(n)|=\infty$ $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n)-g(n)|=0$ $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n) / g(n)|=\infty$ $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}|f(n) / g(n)|=1$ None of the above Calculus tifrece2018 calculus limits + – admin 409 views answer comment Share Follow Add Sync Questions Print 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
