0 votes 0 votes If the $\text{op-amp}$ in figure is ideal, then $v_{0}$ is zero $\left(\mathrm{V}_{1}-\mathrm{V}_{2}\right) \sin \omega t$ $-\left(V_{1}+V_{2}\right) \sin \omega t$ $\left(\mathrm{V}_{1}+\mathrm{V}_{2}\right) \sin \omega t$ Others gate2000-ec + – admin asked Sep 29, 2022 edited Dec 2, 2023 by makhdoom ghaya admin 46.4k points 121 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.